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Old 09-08-2011, 10:57 AM
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sjastro
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I had a read of the Hadley paper and found it dubious.

Quote:
the gravitational potential:

ψ(cp) =(4GJ/c^2r)*sin^2(θ).

It is hypothesised that the scalar field ψ(cp) of the Galaxy, acting oppositely on particles and antiparticles, is responsible for the observed CP violation seen in terrestrial particle physics experiments.
What has this got to do Baryon asymmetry?
The only CP violation observed are the K and B mesons both of which are hadrons not baryons.
The potential for CP violation can only occur where particles and antiparticles exist in some reaction process such as B-decay (CP is not violated but P is) or particle/antiparticle oscillations (where CP is violated).

The vast majority of particles and their antiparticles don't participate in CP violated reactions.

That is only touching the surface, the mathematics is another story.

Regards

Steven
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  #22  
Old 09-08-2011, 01:49 PM
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Isn't there still a question about why CP violation doesn't extend to the strong force ?

I'm not going to defend Hadley's paper .. all I see him doing is constructing a straw-man hypothesis and then coming up with ways of testing it. This seems to be a reasonable way of eliminating possibilities. Whether or not the initial hypothesis is based on sound theory, (or is a wild-goose chase), however is a good question.

(Alex asked whether anyone has a view on the seeming imbalance of matter/anti matter. It seems that Hadley has one !)


Cheers
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  #23  
Old 09-08-2011, 01:53 PM
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renormalised (Carl)
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I still haven't read the paper yet, but if it's as you say, Steven, then I find it hard how Hadley came to his conclusions.
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