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Old 20-02-2011, 07:18 PM
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renormalised (Carl)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CraigS View Post
It doesn't get much mooter ...(??).. er .. more moot, than that question !!

Moot .. moot !!


I reckon I'll leave that one to Brian !!


Cheers
It's not a moot point, Craig. It strikes right at the heart of quantum physics. If something isn't observed, then it can be said to be in all states simultaneously. It's only when an observation is made that the waveform of the observed object/process collapses to the value the observer assigns to the observation (just by the act of making the observation).

If there is no observer to make the observation in the first place, how can universal simultaneity even be said to exist, since that simultaneity is predicated on the existence of both...only that an observation hasn't been made which gives the observed its form. That which is being observed also observes the observer...so before the observer makes an observation of the observed, the observer is also in all possible states.
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