Quote:
Originally Posted by mjc
It's taken me a while to digest this - thanks very much - I think I'm learning something that I didn't even have a handle on before.
Would I be correct in saying that if many of the laws of physics are a consequence of mathematical symmetry - and the bifurcation process breaking some of that symmetry that:
a) the birfurcation process in non-temporal (its a mathematical sequence that exists independent of time)? (I ask this because I'm uncomfortable about things happening "before" the BB.)
b) that no bifurcation branch is special - they're all just different - and that all exist?
If the answer to question b) is true then it must be the case that one cannot preclude that multiple universes arose at the same time as the one that we experience - but it could be that the one that we experience is the only viable one (however one wants to interpret that). Have I missed the dart board all together here?
Thanks all
Mark C.
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My 2 cents worth & as an aside, (until Steven responds):
Sounds logical to me, Mark;
It seems to me that most descriptions about 'origins' in Mainstream Science are about what happened during infinitesimally tiny intervals immediately after the Big Bang, (except for the maths you are probing here).
This would seem to be because all we can do as present-day-humans is to garner information we know about the present and at best, extrapolate it in reverse (ie: into the past).
We had an interesting discussion in the 'Higgs' thread, (following the mysterious locking of this thread yesterday), about 'nothing' and perhaps there was 'nothing' before the Big Bang, perhaps not.
But your questions are probing the interdependence of symmetry-breaking and time, huh ? In Quantum Physics/Field Theory, does 'nothing' before the Big Bang include the symmetry-breaking process ? (In quantum physics I think there cannot be a "nothing", because of the uncertainty principle ...?)
Very cool question ... but at the end of this discussion there can be only ...
Cheers & Rgds.
Over to Steven ...