Les, why do you insist on the angular resolution capacity of a scope as being the Rayleigh or Dawes limits?
It never has been. Ever. Rayleigh own work says so. HIS figures say so. No where does his work day that the Limit is the final limit of resolution of a telescope. No where.
If this is what you are saying?
Because if it is, then we shouldn't see stars as they have zero angular width.
It is an honest question as I otherwise do not follow your last post.
Let's talk rather than continue this here
